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AAPC CPC Exam Syllabus Topics:

Topic	Details
Topic 1	Pre-contract Phase: This section measures the skills of Construction Project Managers in understanding project delivery, contract, and payment models, including identifying client types, contract types, payment models, and necessary documentation. It also measures the skills of Construction Estimators in understanding the project scope, schedule, and necessary resources.
Topic 2	Procurement: This section measures the skills of Construction Quality Engineers in establishing quality requirements for procurement, aligning trade partner requirements, and managing resources for inspections. It also focuses on the skills of Construction Procurement Managers in incorporating material control, resource identification, and mobilization strategies into the resource management process to ensure quality procurement.
Topic 3	Planning Phase: This section measures the skills of Construction Quality Engineers in strategic quality planning, encompassing project quality strategy development, integration of sustainable practices, alignment of the quality plan with other project plans, and adherence to industry standards and quality management systems. Also measures the skills of Construction Planners in understanding how to ensure the team is appropriately trained for quality, how to use third-party services and measurement systems, how to assess quality tools, and how to design a plan to audit quality effectively.
Topic 4	Construction Phase: This section measures the skills of Construction Quality Engineers in implementing quality controls, managing nonconformances, implementing changes, monitoring and measuring quality, managing documentation, and facilitating continuous improvement. It also evaluates the skills of Construction Site Managers in ensuring effective monitoring and management of the construction site, promoting safety, and maintaining quality standards throughout the construction process.

AAPC Certified Professional Coder (CPC) Exam Sample Questions (Q130-Q135):

NEW QUESTION # 130

Refer to the supplemental information when answering this question:
View MR 003264
What is the procedural coding?

A. 32658-78
B. 33020-58
C. 32120-58
D. 35820-78

Answer: A

Explanation:
The patient had a post-operative complication (cardiac tamponade) following a previous CABG surgery, requiring a return to the operating room for exploration and evacuation of a blood clot. This is coded using CPT code 32658 (Exploration, mediastinum, with or without drainage; for postoperative hemorrhage, drainage of abscess, or to locate foreign body). Modifier 78 is appended to indicate an unplanned return to the operating room by the same physician following the initial procedure for a related procedure during the postoperative period.
References:
* CPT Code 32658: Exploration, mediastinum, with or without drainage; for postoperative hemorrhage, drainage of abscess, or to locate foreign body
* Modifier 78: Unplanned return to the operating/procedure room by the same physician following initial procedure for a related procedure during the postoperative period
* AAPC Coder's Desk Reference: This resource provides detailed information on coding guidelines and procedures.

NEW QUESTION # 131
A patient is diagnosed with compression fractures of the C6, C7 and T1 vertebrae. The patient agrees to have vertebroplasty. Bone cement is injected in the vertebral space until each of the two whole vertebral body is filled. The procedure is performed bilaterally.
What CPTcoding is reported?

A. 22510, 22512 x 2
B. 22513, 22515
C. 22510-50, 22512-50 x 2
D. 22513-50, 22513-50

Answer: C

Explanation:
1. Procedure Type and CPTCode Selection:
The physician performed an injection into the wrist joint for degenerative osteoarthritis management using Synvisc (a viscosupplementation product).
Code 20606 is the correct CPTcode for an arthrocentesis, aspiration, and/or injection procedure in an intermediate joint, such as the wrist. This code specifically includes the use of ultrasound guidance, which is often standard in such injections.
Code 20551 (injection of a single tendon origin) and 20526 (injection into a carpal tunnel) are incorrect here as they do not apply to intra-articular injections for joint osteoarthritis management.
2. Diagnosis Code Selection (ICD-10-CM):
The diagnosis is degenerative osteoarthritis in the right wrist.
ICD-10-CM Code M19.231 is used for primary osteoarthritis of the right wrist. This code directly reflects the diagnosis of primary osteoarthritis affecting this specific joint.
M19.031 would represent primary osteoarthritis in the wrist but does not specify laterality; therefore, it is less accurate than M19.231, which denotes the right wrist.
3. Summary of Code Application:
The correct CPTand ICD-10-CM codes are 20606 for the injection procedure and M19.231 for primary osteoarthritis of the right wrist.
4. AAPC and CPTCoding Guidelines:
According to AAPC CPC guidelines, proper joint injection codes require specific identification of the joint location and guidance if used. Additionally, selecting the most specific ICD-10-CM code for laterality is essential for accuracy in musculoskeletal diagnoses.
Thus, based on CPTand ICD-10-CM coding guidelines, the verified answer is B. 20606, M19.231.

NEW QUESTION # 132
A patient is diagnosed with sepsis and associated acute respiratory failure.
What ICD-10-CM code selection is reported?

A. A41.9, R65.21, J96.00
B. A41.9
C. A41.9, J96.00
D. A41.9, R65.20, J96.00

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION # 133
Patient is admitted in observation care on 12/2/20XX in the morning for acute asthma exacerbation. The ED physician requires the patient to stay overnight. Next day, 12/3/20XX the patient is discharged from observation care in the afternoon. Patient's total stay in observation was 16 hours.
What E/M categories and code ranges are appropriate to report?

A. Initial Hospital Inpatient or Observation Care (99221-99223) and Subsequent Hospital Inpatient or Observation Care (99231-99233)
B. Hospital Inpatient or Observation Care Services (Including Admission and Discharge Services) (99234-
99236) and Hospital Inpatient or Observation Discharge services (99238-99239)
C. Hospital Inpatient or Observation Care Services (Including Admission and Discharge Services) (99234-
99236) and Subsequent Inpatient or Observation Care (99231-99233)
D. Initial Hospital Inpatient or Observation Care (99221-99223) and Hospital Inpatient or Observation Discharge services (99238-99239)

Answer: B

Explanation:
1. E/M Code Category Selection:
The patient was placed in observation care on 12/2/20XX for an acute asthma exacerbation and stayed in observation for a total of 16 hours, with discharge occurring on 12/3/20XX.
The appropriate E/M category for patients in observation care for a period that includes both admission and discharge on separate calendar dates is "Hospital Inpatient or Observation Care Services", with specific codes for admission and discharge on different dates.
2. Code Range and Specific Codes:
Code Range 99234-99236 applies to cases where observation care includes both admission and discharge, particularly when they occur on different calendar days and the total duration of care is under 24 hours.
For discharge on the subsequent day, 99238-99239 (Hospital Inpatient or Observation Discharge Services) applies, depending on the time spent on discharge.
3. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:
Option B and Option D include Initial Hospital Inpatient or Observation Care codes (99221-99223), which are typically used for admissions to inpatient care rather than for observation care scenarios as presented here.
Option C incorrectly combines Subsequent Inpatient or Observation Care codes (99231-99233), which are used for follow-up days rather than discharge services.
4. AAPC and CPTCoding Guidelines:
According to CPTguidelines, the 99234-99236 code range is used when observation care requires both admission and discharge on different dates, and 99238-99239 is appropriate for discharge services.
Therefore, the correct answer is A. Hospital Inpatient or Observation Care Services (Including Admission and Discharge Services) (99234-99236) and Hospital Inpatient or Observation Discharge services (99238-99239).

NEW QUESTION # 134
A patient presents for a percutaneous needle biopsy of the liver with ultrasound guidance to assess the severity of his primary biliary cirrhosis.
What CPTand ICD-10-CM codes are reported?

A. 47100, K74.5
B. 47000, 76942, K74.3
C. 47000, 10005, 76942, K74.3
D. 47000, K74.5

Answer: D

Explanation:
1. Procedure and CPTCode Selection:
The patient underwent a percutaneous needle biopsy of the liver with ultrasound guidance to assess primary biliary cirrhosis.
Code 47000 is the CPTcode for a percutaneous liver biopsy. This code encompasses the biopsy procedure itself.
Ultrasound guidance is commonly inherent to biopsy procedures, and guidance is not separately reported if the main code (47000) includes the technique used.
2. Diagnosis and ICD-10-CM Code Selection:
ICD-10-CM Code K74.5 is the correct code for primary biliary cirrhosis, which is specifically indicated in this case.
K74.3 is the code for other specified cirrhosis of the liver but is less specific than K74.5, making K74.5 the appropriate choice here.
3. Exclusion of Other Codes:
Code 47100 (option A) is for an open liver biopsy, which does not apply to this percutaneous procedure.
Codes 10005 (biopsy with imaging guidance) and 76942 (ultrasound guidance) would be redundant or incorrect since the main procedure code, 47000, sufficiently describes a percutaneous liver biopsy.
4. AAPC and CPTCoding Guidelines:
AAPC guidelines state that guidance is included in certain biopsy codes when performed for the targeted organ, such as in 47000 for a liver biopsy.
Therefore, based on CPTand ICD-10-CM coding rules, the correct answer is C. 47000, K74.5.

NEW QUESTION # 135
......

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TEST CPC ASSESSMENT | EXAM CPC SUCCESS

Test CPC Assessment | Exam CPC Success